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::Yes it's too interesting a question. I would suggest reading a few texts from the area and the time period in both Latin and French but beyond that haven't a clue how to help. When I speak Latin I try to be understood grammatically, and I'm usually teaching students who are either Americans or studying in America, so I've never really had to worry about accent problems. That said, I have a few Latin speaking Austrian and German friends, whom I understand with greater difficulty. Good luck!-- [[Usor:Ioscius|Ioscius]] ^{'''[[Disputatio Usoris:Ioscius|∞]]'''} 09:52, 30 Septembris 2010 (UTC)

:::By 1600 in France, ''ae'' and ''oe'' had been [e] for more than a thousand years. Also, ''ce'' and ''ci'' had been [se] and [si], respectively, since the thirteenth century—none of this Italianate ''excelsis'' = "eggshell sees" business. The ''g'' in ''ge'' & ''gi'' was "softened." Vowels before two or more consonants were shortened (e.g., ''cĕnsus,'' not the classical ''cēnsus''), and vowels in open syllables were lengthened (e.g., ''tēnet,'' not the classical ''tĕnet''). Since the English pronunciation of Latin after 1066 came under heavy influence from Norman usage, W. Sydney Allen's chapter "The pronunciation of Latin in England" is pertinent to your question. [[Usor:IacobusAmor|IacobusAmor]] 12:07, 30 Septembris 2010 (UTC)

:Err, in line with this, is Athena pronounced At'hena? The 'th' here as in 'a<u>t h</u>ome' not as in 'the' or 'thick'? Gratias .--[[Usor:Jondel|Jondel]] 05:22, 30 Septembris 2010 (UTC)

::In real classical Latin, say in Cicero's time, "th" was surely pronounced as in 'a<u>t h</u>ome'. The sound [θ] as in 'thick' was unknown in classical Latin (and maybe had not yet developed in Greek at that date either). I expect someone will come along and contradict me ...